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On Mar 20, 10:58Â*am, "James Silverton"
wrote: "DaleW" wrote in message ... On Mar 20, 10:32�am, "James Silverton" wrote: �Steve �wrote �on Wed, 19 Mar 2008 21:38:14 +0000: �?? Would you please expand on "totally different clonally" ? �?? It has no obvious meaning to me. �SS I mean that the clones of Zin in California may be similar �SS to each other, but not closely related to the clones of �SS Pimitivo in Italy. �SS �Zin and Primitivo have a common ancestor, but clonal �SS selection in California and Italy could have effectively �SS produced two very different grapes for practical purposes. �SS In the same way that Pinot Blanc and Pinot Gris are �SS practically different for example, despite the fact that �SS they technically belong to the same variety. �SS It's pure speculation that the clones are very different, �SS but I bet they are not the same clones both sides of the �SS Atlantic. �As far as I know no one has done the research. �SS But it could be that the differences between California Zin �SS and Italian Primitivo might not be totally down to terroir. I am still rather puzzled. A clone in genetics is an exact replica. Cloning, in horticulture and biology, produces an organism whose genetic information is identical to that �from which it was created. I would suspect that it is usual to grow new vines of Pinot Blanc and Pinot Gris etc. from cuttings. In this case, the DNA sequence for two cuttings is identical even if growers may try to select for a particular characteristic. I don't know how you can achieve this asexually. Genetics seems to be taking a beating :-) Since "clonality" is described as the ability to form clones or the ability to be cloned, it does not seem to describe a process of selection that might produce different varieties. James Silverton Potomac, Maryland E-mail, with obvious alterations: not.jim.silverton.at.verizon.not Did you read Bill's link to the WLDG discussion with Carole Meredith's explanation? " All clonal variation, on the other hand, arises as a result of rare and random somatic mutations (i.e., not sexual) that occur in all vines. Sometimes such a mutation has a visible or otherwise detectable (e.g. aroma difference) effect and a vine carrying it will be preferentially used for propagation wood for new vineyards. But often it is just chance that one mutation survives to the next generation of vineyards and another doesn't. The mutations accumulate over time and eventually clones diverge from each other." "Somatic" sounds rather mystical to me. Something is either a clone (exact replica) or it is not tho' two *cuttings* might differ. Perhaps to enlighten me, you know some references to scientific papers or published books by authors from, say, U. Cal, Davis, explaining these terms. -- Jim Silverton Potomac, Maryland- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - I think Carole has retired in last couple years from UC-Davis, but she is probably considered the top expert on grape genetics in the world. |
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"DaleW" wrote in message
... On Mar 20, 10:58 am, "James Silverton" wrote: "DaleW" wrote in message ... On Mar 20, 10:32�am, "James Silverton" wrote: �Steve �wrote �on Wed, 19 Mar 2008 21:38:14 +0000: �?? Would you please expand on "totally different clonally" ? �?? It has no obvious meaning to me. �SS I mean that the clones of Zin in California may be similar �SS to each other, but not closely related to the clones of �SS Pimitivo in Italy. �SS �Zin and Primitivo have a common ancestor, but clonal �SS selection in California and Italy could have effectively �SS produced two very different grapes for practical purposes. �SS In the same way that Pinot Blanc and Pinot Gris are �SS practically different for example, despite the fact that �SS they technically belong to the same variety. �SS It's pure speculation that the clones are very different, �SS but I bet they are not the same clones both sides of the �SS Atlantic. �As far as I know no one has done the research. �SS But it could be that the differences between California Zin �SS and Italian Primitivo might not be totally down to terroir. I am still rather puzzled. A clone in genetics is an exact replica. Cloning, in horticulture and biology, produces an organism whose genetic information is identical to that �from which it was created. I would suspect that it is usual to grow new vines of Pinot Blanc and Pinot Gris etc. from cuttings. In this case, the DNA sequence for two cuttings is identical even if growers may try to select for a particular characteristic. I don't know how you can achieve this asexually. Genetics seems to be taking a beating :-) Since "clonality" is described as the ability to form clones or the ability to be cloned, it does not seem to describe a process of selection that might produce different varieties. James Silverton Potomac, Maryland E-mail, with obvious alterations: not.jim.silverton.at.verizon.not Did you read Bill's link to the WLDG discussion with Carole Meredith's explanation? " All clonal variation, on the other hand, arises as a result of rare and random somatic mutations (i.e., not sexual) that occur in all vines. Sometimes such a mutation has a visible or otherwise detectable (e.g. aroma difference) effect and a vine carrying it will be preferentially used for propagation wood for new vineyards. But often it is just chance that one mutation survives to the next generation of vineyards and another doesn't. The mutations accumulate over time and eventually clones diverge from each other." "Somatic" sounds rather mystical to me. Something is either a clone (exact replica) or it is not tho' two *cuttings* might differ. Perhaps to enlighten me, you know some references to scientific papers or published books by authors from, say, U. Cal, Davis, explaining these terms. -- Jim Silverton Potomac, Maryland- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - DaleW I think Carole has retired in last couple years from UC-Davis, DaleW but she is probably considered the top expert on grape genetics DaleW in the world. I will have to search libraries for her books since of the two relevant ones available on Amazon, one is out of my range at $202 and the other is unavailable. Thanks. -- Jim Silverton Potomac, Maryland |
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James Silverton wrote:
Did you read Bill's link to the WLDG discussion with Carole Meredith's explanation? " All clonal variation, on the other hand, arises as a result of rare and random somatic mutations (i.e., not sexual) that occur in all vines. Sometimes such a mutation has a visible or otherwise detectable (e.g. aroma difference) effect and a vine carrying it will be preferentially used for propagation wood for new vineyards. But often it is just chance that one mutation survives to the next generation of vineyards and another doesn't. The mutations accumulate over time and eventually clones diverge from each other." "Somatic" sounds rather mystical to me. Something is either a clone (exact replica) or it is not tho' two *cuttings* might differ. Perhaps to enlighten me, you know some references to scientific papers or published books by authors from, say, U. Cal, Davis, explaining these terms. Somatic or germline mutation refers to the random mutagenesis events that arise from chemical modification of DNA such as alkylation, gamma irradiation or enzymatic crossover events. The semantic difficulty here is that, as you note, cloning refers to asexual reproduction and so implies no change in genetic identity. What Prof. Meredith (Emeritus from UC Davis) means by this usage is "clonal variation," the explanation for how two clones, both of which arise from asexual reproduction of the same germline, can differ genetically. Somewhat off the topic, there is a growing field of epigenetics, the study of how gene regulation can alter genetic expression without altering the DNA itself. Most recently, epigenetic differences have been used to explain the differences encountered between "identical" twins (as described in a recent Science publication). Mark Lipton -- alt.food.wine FAQ: http://winefaq.hostexcellence.com |
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On Mar 20, 11:32Â*am, "James Silverton"
wrote: "DaleW" wrote in message ... On Mar 20, 10:58 am, "James Silverton" wrote: "DaleW" wrote in message ... On Mar 20, 10:32�am, "James Silverton" wrote: �Steve �wrote �on Wed, 19 Mar 2008 21:38:14 +0000: �?? Would you please expand on "totally different clonally" ? �?? It has no obvious meaning to me. �SS I mean that the clones of Zin in California may be similar �SS to each other, but not closely related to the clones of �SS Pimitivo in Italy. �SS �Zin and Primitivo have a common ancestor, but clonal �SS selection in California and Italy could have effectively �SS produced two very different grapes for practical purposes. �SS In the same way that Pinot Blanc and Pinot Gris are �SS practically different for example, despite the fact that �SS they technically belong to the same variety. �SS It's pure speculation that the clones are very different, �SS but I bet they are not the same clones both sides of the �SS Atlantic. �As far as I know no one has done the research. �SS But it could be that the differences between California Zin �SS and Italian Primitivo might not be totally down to terroir. I am still rather puzzled. A clone in genetics is an exact replica. Cloning, in horticulture and biology, produces an organism whose genetic information is identical to that �from which it was created. I would suspect that it is usual to grow new vines of Pinot Blanc and Pinot Gris etc. from cuttings. In this case, the DNA sequence for two cuttings is identical even if growers may try to select for a particular characteristic. I don't know how you can achieve this asexually. Genetics seems to be taking a beating :-) Since "clonality" is described as the ability to form clones or the ability to be cloned, it does not seem to describe a process of selection that might produce different varieties. James Silverton Potomac, Maryland E-mail, with obvious alterations: not.jim.silverton.at.verizon.not Did you read Bill's link to the WLDG discussion with Carole Meredith's explanation? " All clonal variation, on the other hand, arises as a result of rare and random somatic mutations (i.e., not sexual) that occur in all vines. Sometimes such a mutation has a visible or otherwise detectable (e.g. aroma difference) effect and a vine carrying it will be preferentially used for propagation wood for new vineyards. But often it is just chance that one mutation survives to the next generation of vineyards and another doesn't. The mutations accumulate over time and eventually clones diverge from each other." "Somatic" sounds rather mystical to me. Something is either a clone (exact replica) or it is not tho' two *cuttings* might differ. Perhaps to enlighten me, you know some references to scientific papers or published books by authors from, say, U. Cal, Davis, explaining these terms. -- Jim Silverton Potomac, Maryland- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - DaleW Â*I think Carole has retired in last couple years from UC-Davis, DaleW but she is probably considered the top expert on grape genetics DaleW in the world. I will have to search libraries for her books since of the two relevant ones available on Amazon, one is out of my range at $202 and the other is unavailable. Thanks. -- Jim Silverton Potomac, Maryland- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - This is a little more in depth. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zinfandel Genetically duplicates or not.....the wines smell and taste different to me. Why? The vines themselves? The terroir? The vineyard techniques or cellar techniques? |
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Bi!! wrote on Thu, 20 Mar 2008 08:37:44 -0700 (PDT):
?? I will have to search libraries for her books since of the ?? two relevant ones available on Amazon, one is out of my ?? range at $202 and the other is unavailable. Thanks. ?? ?? -- ?? Jim Silverton ?? Potomac, Maryland- Hide quoted text - ?? ?? - Show quoted text - B This is a little more in depth. B http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zinfandel A Google Scholar search on Carole Meredith produced some interesting summaries and I will have to see if I can look at the full papers at a local university library when I have time. I will have to refresh my memory as to things like allele etc. Even my copy of Stryer's Biochemistry seems a bit sketchy there as to mechanisms. James Silverton Potomac, Maryland E-mail, with obvious alterations: not.jim.silverton.at.verizon.not |
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On Thu, 20 Mar 2008 14:32:17 GMT, "James Silverton"
wrote: I am still rather puzzled. A clone in genetics is an exact replica. Cloning, in horticulture and biology, produces an organism whose genetic information is identical to that from which it was created. You are right. Clones are genetically identical. But I think in everyday usage, if you take a number of cutting from the same vine, they would be called clones - even if small mutations caused the cuttings to have slightly different DNA. Frankly no one would really know whether they are true clones or not - it was only recently, wasn't it, that the complete DNA sequence of a grape (a Pinot Noir) was published. The different clones sold by nurseries would be more distinct, and would have documented properties. Presumably vines also sometimes mutate into something totally different, at which point they would be destroyed - isn't that one of the possible consequences of viral infection? -- Steve Slatcher http://pobox.com/~steve.slatcher |
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Mark Lipton wrote:
apples and oranges: Chamapagne is a _place_ name, like Napa or Sonoma; Thats true but I do not feel a place defines a wine in the way the French perceive. Can a great Burgundy blend be produced from grapes not grown in the Burgundy region? Can Burgundy grown grapes not blended into a true Burgundy be a great wine? I have no trouble with labeling an appellation as its important but naming the wine by region doesn't make sense to me. California, Oregon, Washington all produce great wines and do it without such policies. A Napa wine doesn't tell me much at all nor does Burgundy. Too broad for anything meaningful due to the numerous micro climates of the region. Do you really feel that particular blends common in a particular California region should be named after that region and regulated as such? |
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Mark Lipton wrote:
Zinfandel from wherever isn't deceptively labeled if what's in the bottle is indeed Zinfandel. Get it? Thats only because of historical naming. Burgundy wines are a blend of 3 or 4 grapes which are also grown worldwide quite successfully. So the term Burgundy only refers to the appellation and nothing more. Why not just say that as USA wines are labeled? My point was asking whether California should have 'trademarked' the term Zinfandel for it's exclusive use before others started using it? For me the answer would be no. If I want a particular blend from a particular appellation I'll look for it. |
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Mike Tommasi wrote:
The name Zinfandel may be a synonym of Primitivo - and officially recognized by USA and EU - but its usage is definitely tied to a place, to the rich history and culture of wine in America. As an Italian I would never buy a wine from Puglia labelled Zinfandel. Just as I don't buy California wines labeled Primitivo. A Zin is a Zin and a Primitivo is what it is. |
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Miles wrote:
Thats true but I do not feel a place defines a wine in the way the French perceive. Can a great Burgundy blend be produced from grapes not grown in the Burgundy region? Great Pinot Noir and Chardonnay can be grown in several different places, but great Burgundy by definition comes from Burgundy. And it's not just a French idea: Italian and Spanish wines are also frequently labeled by place. Can Burgundy grown grapes not blended into a true Burgundy be a great wine? I have no trouble with labeling an appellation as its important but naming the wine by region doesn't make sense to me. California, Oregon, Washington all produce great wines and do it without such policies. That's true, but that's a straw man argument. I'm not arguing that names like Chablis, Champagne and Burgundy should be protected because they produce great wine (although they do) but because those names are, in essence, brand names for regions. I can't make tissue paper and legally call it Kleenex; why should I be able to make a red wine and call it Burgundy? A Napa wine doesn't tell me much at all nor does Burgundy. Too broad for anything meaningful due to the numerous micro climates of the region. That's why there are sub-appelation and vineyard names. Do you not subscribe to the notion of "Rutherford Dust" or "Santa Lucia Highlands Pinot Noir"? Likewise, Musigny has a certain flavor profile, as does Richebourg. Those names were arrived at from many centuries of experience. Do you really feel that particular blends common in a particular California region should be named after that region and regulated as such? No, and where in my statement do you get that mistaken impression? My point is that certain place names are protected as equivalent to trademarks. Do you think that crabs from Florida should be able to be sold as Dungeness crabs? Should farmed salmon from Canada be sold as Copper River? Should California be able to sell its produce as Florida oranges? Mark Lipton -- alt.food.wine FAQ: http://winefaq.hostexcellence.com |
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Mark Lipton wrote:
I can't make tissue paper and legally call it Kleenex; why should I be able to make a red wine and call it Burgundy? Not a good analogy. If I buy 5 boxes of Kleenex I know that all will be the same. If I buy 5 bottles of Burgundy they will not all be the same unless I look at who made them and what vineyard, winemaker etc. Burgundy is not a brand name like Kleenex. It is an appellation although in the case of Burgundy is also describes the choice of grapes used but not the exact blending done. That's why there are sub-appelation and vineyard names. Do you not subscribe to the notion of "Rutherford Dust" or "Santa Lucia Highlands Pinot Noir"? Likewise, Musigny has a certain flavor profile, as does Richebourg. Those names were arrived at from many centuries of experience. I agree with noting that on the bottle. I like Reds from the Stags Leap region. But I do not feel Reds that come from that region should be labeled Stags Leap Wine. No, and where in my statement do you get that mistaken impression? You feel France etc. should but the USA shouldn't? Thats my point. Why is it ok in Europe but you don't feel it appropriate elsewhere? point is that certain place names are protected as equivalent to trademarks. With regards to Wine where is this done in the USA without it being trademarked by a particular wine producer? If it isn't, why not? Do you think that crabs from Florida should be able to be sold as Dungeness crabs? Dungeness refers to a species and not a region. They are found along the western coast from Alaska down into Mexico. The grapes used in Burgundy are not unique to the region nor a particular producer. Label the appellation correctly just as is done in the USA. Should farmed salmon from Canada be sold as Copper River? Should California be able to sell its produce as Florida oranges? Nope and a wine made from grapes grown in New York can't label them as being from elsewhere. |
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On Tue, 25 Mar 2008 20:54:55 -0700, Miles wrote:
Burgundy wines are a blend of 3 or 4 grapes. The vast majoritiy of Burgundies are made from a single variety. Not that it affects your arguments otherwise I suppose. -- Steve Slatcher http://pobox.com/~steve.slatcher |
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On Tue, 25 Mar 2008 20:47:30 -0700, Miles wrote:
Mark Lipton wrote: apples and oranges: Chamapagne is a _place_ name, like Napa or Sonoma; Thats true but I do not feel a place defines a wine in the way the French perceive. French AOCs are not just defined by the place. It is also the grape varieties used, vineyard practice, yields and vinification. Can a great Burgundy blend be produced from grapes not grown in the Burgundy region? Can Burgundy grown grapes not blended into a true Burgundy be a great wine? Putting aside the issue of greatness, I'd say that in general Burgundy has a taste profile that is distinct from PN wines made elsewhere. I am thinking of the better generic Burgundies, and village level and upwards here. I have no trouble with labeling an appellation as its important but naming the wine by region doesn't make sense to me. California, Oregon, Washington all produce great wines and do it without such policies. They may not use such large print on the label, but use of California etc, and/or sub areas, is controlled. And respected by the EU. A Napa wine doesn't tell me much at all nor does Burgundy. Too broad for anything meaningful due to the numerous micro climates of the region. Certainly to talk about the terroir of Burgundy or Bordeaux in a generic way is meaningless twaddle - the stuff of French marketing and little else. But the climate and winemaking practices are also controlled, and these contribute to the taste. Do you really feel that particular blends common in a particular California region should be named after that region and regulated as such? Not really sure what you are asking here. AOCs do not name blends after regions. They say that IF you want to call a wine Burgundy you have to follow a set of rules - including region, grapes, and many other. What California growers want to do is up to them as far as I am concerned, providing they do not confuse the consumer by using names that have already been earmarked by others. They seem to be doing OK using variety names and AVAs and I see no problem with that. -- Steve Slatcher http://pobox.com/~steve.slatcher |
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"miles" wrote ................
If I buy 5 bottles of Burgundy they will not all be the same unless I look at who made them and what vineyard, winemaker etc. Burgundy is not a brand name like Kleenex. With the greatest of respect Miles, your view if far too simplistic. If you truly want to understand this region and its wines I suggest you read "Côte d'Or: A celebration of the great wines of Burgundy" by Clive Coates. "Bourgogne" appellation covers all the Burgundy region, totalling approx. 7,500 acres. The vineyards of Bourgogne AOC are located on 385 villages - many with their own separate appellations - names like Chablis - Côte de Nuits - Gevrey Chambertin - Clos Vougeot - Vosne Romanée - Nuits Saint Georges -Côte de Beaune - Corton - Pommard - Volnay - Meursault - Chassagne Montrachet - Rully - Givry - Pouilly Fuissé - Macon - Mercurey - these are all separate appellations within Burgundy. The grapes used in Burgundy are Pinot Noir for red wine and Chardonnay for white wine. Until 50 or so years ago, winemakers also used Pinot Beurot, César and Tressot red grapes but they have now almost non-existent to the extent that one should consider all white Burgundy (and Chablis) as Chardonnay and all red Burgundy as Pinot Noir. It is an appellation Exactly - as Steve said, this means very strict controls over everything from approved varieties, vineyards practices, yields, vinification etc. although in the case of Burgundy is also describes the choice of grapes used but not the exact blending done. Nope - sorry - again, no choice - Chardonnay for white; Pinot noir for ed - thus (unlike Bordeaux) no blending of varieties. Nope and a wine made from grapes grown in New York can't label them as being from elsewhere. Exactly - so why do you think it is alright that a wine made from grapes grown *anywhere outside of Burgundy* (this distinct geographic area in France) could be named "Burgundy"? Next you will be arguing that it is fine for a Sauvignon Blanc, grown and made in New York, to be labelled "Marlborough." -- st.helier |
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Hi Miles,
This argument of geographical naming protection was taken by the WTO (world trade org) and was mostly won on your arguments. Personaly I disagree with the findings that Canada can go on producing Parma Ham even thought Parma Ham is NOT from Parma. Or San Marasno tomatoes grown in Canada. Realize all of these and many more are the geographical component. If a town in Canada decided to change their name however to "Parma" shouldn't they be allowed to state Parma ham from Parma? There is a Naples Italy, Naples Florida...and many more... While I understand this ruling from WTO I do not personally apply it the same way to wine. But the majority do in the world. And unless there are treaties and respect given this debate cannot really change minds. "Miles" wrote in message ... Mark Lipton wrote: Zinfandel from wherever isn't deceptively labeled if what's in the bottle is indeed Zinfandel. Get it? Thats only because of historical naming. Burgundy wines are a blend of 3 or 4 grapes which are also grown worldwide quite successfully. So the term Burgundy only refers to the appellation and nothing more. Why not just say that as USA wines are labeled? My point was asking whether California should have 'trademarked' the term Zinfandel for it's exclusive use before others started using it? For me the answer would be no. If I want a particular blend from a particular appellation I'll look for it. |
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